Answer:
$404,000
Explanation:
Production Unit totals $135,000 plus $18,000 minus $14,000, resulting in $139,000.
The labor time for each unit is 30 minutes, equivalent to 0.5 hours.
The total labor hours equate to $139,000 multiplied by 0.5, giving 69,500 hours.
The variable overhead amounts to 69,500 hours multiplied by 5, resulting in $347,500.
Summing up the total overhead costs yields $347,500 plus $56,500, leading to a total of $404,000.
Answer:
A. For the dividend, John incurred a cost of $0.00 since he was not listed as the shareholder of record by August 15th. As a result, the dividend allocation was made to the stock's former owner.
Explanation:
The settlement date refers to when the buyer officially takes ownership of the shares, typically occurring two days after the trade date.
Hope this will help, please do comment if you need any further explanation. Your feedback would be highly appreciated.
a. Determine the initial investment tied to replacing the current grinder with the new one.
Initial investment = cost of the new grinder + installation costs of the new grinder - after-tax revenue from selling the old grinder + increase in net working capital.
Cost of the new grinder = $105,000.
Cost to install the new grinder = $5,000.
After-tax revenue from the old grinder = $70,000 - ($70,000 - {$60,000 x (1 - 52%)] x 40%} = $70,000 - $16,480 = $53,520.
Increase in net working capital = $40,000 + $30,000 - $58,000 = $12,000.
Thus, initial investment = $105,000 + $5,000 - $53,520 + $12,000 = $68,480.
b. Assess the incremental operating cash inflows related to the new grinder installation. (Remember to factor in depreciation in year 6.)
New grinder cash flows:
Year 1 = [($43,000 - $22,000) x (1 - 40%)] + $22,000 = $34,600.
Year 2 = [($43,000 - $35,200) x (1 - 40%)] + $35,200 = $39,880.
Year 3 = [($43,000 - $21,120) x (1 - 40%)] + $21,120 = $34,248.
Year 4 = [($43,000 - $12,672) x (1 - 40%)] + $12,672 = $30,868.80.
Year 5 = [($43,000 - $12,672) x (1 - 40%)] + $12,672 + $18,000 (NWC) + $19,934.40 (after-tax salvage value) = $68,803.20.
Old grinder cash flows:
Year 1 = [($26,000 - $11,520) x (1 - 40%)] + $11,520 = $20,208.
Year 2 = [($24,000 - $6,912) x (1 - 40%)] + $6,912 = $15,964.80.
Year 3 = [($22,000 - $6,912) x (1 - 40%)] + $6,912 = $15,964.80.
Year 4 = [($20,000 - $3,456) x (1 - 40%)] + $3,456 = $13,382.40.
Year 5 = $18,000 x (1 - 40%) = $10,800.
Incremental cash flows:
Year 1 = $34,600 - $20,208 = $14,392.
Year 2 = $39,880 - $15,964.80 = $23,915.20.
Year 3 = $34,248 - $15,964.80 = $18,283.20.
Year 4 = $30,868.80 - $13,382.40 = $17,486.40.
Year 5 = $68,803.20 - $10,800 = $58,003.20.
c. Determine the expected terminal cash flow at the end of year 5 from the grinder replacement.
Terminal cash flow = regaining net working capital + after-tax salvage value = $18,000 + $19,934.40 = $37,934.40.
d. Show a timeline displaying the relevant cash flows for the proposed grinder replacement decision.
Year 0 = -$68,480.
Year 1 = $34,600.
Year 2 = $39,880.
Year 3 = $34,248.
Year 4 = $30,868.80.
Year 5 = $68,803.20.
Answer:
Option E. 8 percent interest over a period of 10 years
Explanation:
The formula for Present Value Impact Factor is
PVIF = a / (1 + r)^ n
Where
a represents the future amount to be received
r stands for the discount interest rate
and n signifies the number of years or any time period
If the denominator grows larger, the Present Value Interest Factor will decrease, implying that the highest denominator occurs at 8 percent interest for 10 years. Therefore, option E is correct.
