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Alenkinab
1 month ago
7

Leroy's credit card has an APR of 21%, calculated on the previous monthly

Business
2 answers:
arsen [2.9K]1 month ago
7 0

Answer:

38.76

Explanation:

arsen [2.9K]1 month ago
5 0

Answer:

APEX: 271.30

Explanation:

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Pollyanna Publishing, a textbook publishing firm, purchased a new machine for $80,000. This machine is expected to operate for 1
harina [3228]

Answer:

A.

Depreciation Expense for the first year: $14,400

For the second year’s depreciation expense: $11,520

B.

The depreciation expense for the first year is equal to the second year’s depreciation expense = $7,200

Explanation:

A.Using the straight-line method, the asset has a useful life of 10 years, meaning its annual depreciation represents 10% of the depreciable cost.

Calculating the depreciable cost results in = Total cost of the asset - salvage value =  $80,000-$8,000 = $72,000

With the double-declining-balance method, the straight-line rate of 10% is increased to 20%, which is then applied to the book value of the depreciable cost at the start of each year.

For the first year, the depreciation expense is calculated as 20% of $72,000  = $14,400

At the onset of the second year, the book value of the depreciable cost is $72,000 -$14,400 = $57,600

The depreciation expense for the second year is then 20% of $57,600  = $11,520

B.

The organization adopts straight-line depreciation, calculating Depreciation Expense for each year using the following formula:  

Depreciation Expense = (Cost of the machine − salvage value)/Useful Life = ($80,000-$8,000)/10 = $7,200

Thus, the first year’s Depreciation Expense = the same value as the second year’s depreciation expense = $7,200

7 0
20 days ago
A researcher in Alaska measured the age (in months) and the weight (in pounds) of a random sample of adolescent moose. When the
harina [3228]

Answer:

c. 0.59

Explanation:

The correlation coefficient represents a statistical indication of how strongly two variables are related. It doesn't possess units such as meters per second or months per pound. A correlation coefficient of 1 signifies a strong positive or direct relationship, while a negative value indicates an inverse relationship.

7 0
1 month ago
Consider two markets: the market for coffee and the market for hot cocoa·The initial equilibrium for both markets is the same, t
harina [3228]

Answer:

The elasticity of supply for hot cocoa calculated at 1.43.

(D) The coffee market's supply is less elastic compared to that of hot cocoa.

Explanation:

Applying the midpoint formula,

The elasticity of supply for hot cocoa is (change in quantity supplied/average quantity supplied) ÷ (change in price/average price).

The change in quantity supplied amounts to 101 - 31 = 70.

The average quantity supplied equals (101 + 31)/2 = 66.

70/66 yields 1.06.

The price change is 9.75 - 4.5 = 5.25.

The average price is (9.75 + 4.5)/2 = 7.125.

5.25 divided by 7.125 results in 0.74.

Thus, hot cocoa's elasticity of supply is 1.06 ÷ 0.74 = 1.43. The supply for hot cocoa is elastic since this value exceeds 1.

For coffee, the elasticity of supply computes to (73 - 31)/(73 + 31)/2 ÷ 0.74, which simplifies to 42/52 ÷ 0.74 = 0.81 ÷ 0.74 = 1.09. Coffee supply is regarded as elastic as well because its elasticity is above 1.

However, the supply of coffee is less elastic than that of hot cocoa since its elasticity value is lower than that for hot cocoa.

7 0
1 month ago
Suppose a family has saved enough for a 10 day vacation (the only one they will be able to take for 10 years) and has a utility
stepan [3001]

Answer:

2 Days

Explanation:

To clarify, we need to restate the utility function for clarity

U=V^{1/2}

1. Probability of an illness occurring in the family is 20%

2. If an illness occurs, the total number of days impacted is calculated as:

Total vacation days = 10 days x Probability of illness = 20%

= 10 x 0.2 = 2 days

This indicates that should an illness occur based on this probability, 2 out of the 10 vacation days will be affected

3. The number of remaining vacation days to enjoy would thus be 10-2 = 8 days

This indicates that even after accounting for 2 days of potential illness, the family can still enjoy their vacation period.

V= 2 days

5 0
11 days ago
Kubes Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single plantwide predetermined overhead rate of $5.50 based on direct l
harina [3228]

Answer:

Total expenditure= $3,870

Explanation:

Based on the provided data:

predetermined overhead rate= $5.50

For Job A477:

Total direct labor hours: 100

Direct materials cost: $520

Direct labor expenses: $2,800

Now we calculate the overhead allocation:

Allocated manufacturing overhead= Estimated overhead rate * Actual base amount

Allocated manufacturing overhead= 5.50*100= $550

Then, we can compute the total job cost:

Total expense= 520 + 2,800 + 550= $3,870

8 0
29 days ago
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