Answer: Macy's pre-tax shirt price is $5.63
Step-by-step explanation:
Details:
Original cost = 20
sale price drops by 25% every month it remains unsold.
First markdown month:
20 * (100%-25%) = 20 * 75% = 15
Second markdown month:
15 * 75% = 11.25
Macy, being an employee, enjoys a 50% discount on the current price.
11.25 * 50% = 5.625
11.25 - 5.625 = 5.625 or rounded to 5.63
Hope this helps!:)
To determine the rates at which the inlet and outlet pipes fill and empty the reservoir, we remember that work done equals rate multiplied by time. Let’s denote the inlet rate as i and for the outlet pipe as 0. Therefore,
i(24) = 1
o(28) = 1
In this context, the '1' represents the total number of reservoirs, since the problem states the time needed for each pipe to either fill or empty a singular reservoir. Solving for rates yields:
i = 1/24 reservoirs/hour
o = 1/28 reservoirs/hour
Over the first six hours, the inlet pipe fills (1/24)(6) = 1/4 reservoirs and during the same period, the outlet pipe empties (1/28)(6) = 3/14 reservoirs. To calculate the net volume of the reservoir filled, we subtract the emptying total from the filling total:
1/4 - 3/14 = 1/28 reservoirs (note that if emptying exceeds filling, a negative value results. In such cases, treat that negative value as zero, indicating that the outlet rate surpasses the inlet rate, leading to an empty reservoir).
Now we need to find out how long it will take to fill up one reservoir since we’ve already partially filled 1/28 of it, after closing the outlet pipe. In simpler terms, we need to determine the time required for the inlet pipe to finish filling the remaining 27/28 of the reservoir. Fortunately, we have already established the filling rate for the inlet pipe, leading to the equation:
(1/24)t = 27/28
Solving for t gives us 23.14 hours. Remember to add the initial 6 hours to this result since the question seeks the total time. Thus, the final total is 29.14 hours.
Please ask me any questions you may have!
The tension does not approach infinity.
<span>Let's analyze free body diagrams (FBDs) for each mass, considering the direction of motion of m₁ as positive.
For m₁: m₁*g - T = m₁*a
For m₂: T - m₂*g = m₂*a
Assuming a massless cord and pulley without friction, the accelerations are the same.
From the second equation: a = (T - m₂*g) / m₂
Substitute into the first:
m₁*g - T = m₁ * [(T - m₂*g) / m₂]
Rearranging:
m₁*g - T = (m₁*T)/m₂ - m₁*g
2*m₁*g = T * (1 + m₁/m₂)
2*m₁*m₂*g = T * (m₂ + m₁)
T = (2*m₁*m₂*g) / (m₂ + m₁)
Taking the limit as m₁ approaches infinity:
T = 2*m₂*g
This aligns with intuition since the greatest acceleration m₁ can have is -g. The cord then accelerates m₂ upward at g while gravity acts downward, leading to a maximum upward acceleration of 2*g for m₁.</span>
Answer:
$82.3
Step-by-step explanation:
82 multiplied by 25 equals 2050.
Adding 90 gives 2140.
Dividing 2140 by 26 results in 82.3.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Characteristics of a bar graph include:
1). There must be uniform spacing between the bars or columns.
2). Each bar or column should have a consistent width.
3). All bars must share the same baseline.
4). The height of each bar corresponds to the data value.
Based on these criteria,
- Spacing between London-Paris and Rome-Oslo isn’t uniform.
- Width of the Munich bar differs from the others.
