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Aleksandr
1 month ago
5

Job-Order Costing and Decision Making [LO2-1, LO2-2, LO2-3]

Business
1 answer:
Katen [2.9K]1 month ago
7 0

Answer:

a. $21 per machine hour

b. $4,855

Explanation:

a. The calculation for the plantwide predetermined overhead rate is detailed below:

Plantwide predetermined overhead rate formula is as follows:

= Variable overhead cost rate for each machine hour + Fixed overhead cost rate for each machine hour

= $2 + (Fixed manufacturing overhead cost ÷ Estimated machine hours)

= $2 + ($4,275,000 ÷  225,000 machine hours)

= $2 + $19

= $21 per machine hour

b. The total manufacturing cost assigned is

Particulars Amount

Direct materials $1,702

Direct labor $1,221

Variable manufacturing overhead $168

(84 × $2)

Total variable cost $3,091

Add:

Fixed manufacturing overhead

(84 × $21) $1,764

Total manufacturing cost assigned

to Job P90 $4,855

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Answer:

  • As explained below, with the individual’s score in the 0.03125 fraction of top candidates, they can anticipate securing a position.

Explanation:

Utilizing Chebyshev’s Theorem is key.

This theorem is valid for any dataset, irrespective of its shape.

Chebyshev's Theorem states that at least 1−1/k² of the data falls within k standard deviations from the mean.

For this data set, the specifics are:

  • mean: 60
  • standard deviation: 6
  • score: 84

The number of standard deviations that 84 is from the mean can be calculated as:

  • k = (score - mean) / standard deviation
  • k = (84 - 60) / 6 = 24 / 6 = 4

Hence, the individual’s score is 4 standard deviations above the mean.

How significant is this?

According to Chebyshev’s Theorem, at least 1−1/k² of the data is within k standard deviations from the mean. Setting k = 4 gives us:

  • 1 - 1/4² = 1 - 1/16 = 0.9375

  • This implies that half of 1 - 0.9375 exceed k = 4: 0.03125

  • Consequently, 1 - 0.03125 is below k = 4: 0.96875

With 70 job openings and 1,000 applicants, the ratio is 70/1,000 = 0.07, indicating the company seeks the top 0.07 of applicants.

Given the individual scores in the top 0.03125 of applicants, they can expect to obtain a job.

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26 days ago
Which of the following items are normally classified as current liabilities for a company that has a one-year operating cycle? (
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Response:

  • Impuesto sobre ventas a pagar
  • FICA-impuestos de seguridad social a pagar que vencen en 40 días
Parte de un préstamo a largo plazo que vence en 1 mes
  • Clarificación:

Los Pasivos Corrientes se refieren a obligaciones que deben ser pagadas en un período de 12 meses. Todo lo que sea mayor se clasifica como Pasivo a Largo Plazo. Según los elementos enlistados, los pasivos corrientes serán;

Impuesto sobre ventas a pagar, que son los tributos que el gobierno cobra sobre bienes y servicios, siendo responsabilidad de la empresa su recaudación y remisión puntual al gobierno. Esto es considerado pasivo corriente ya que se remiten con relativa frecuencia.

Los impuestos de seguridad social FICA pendientes por 40 días también son un pasivo corriente debido a su período de tiempo inferior a un año.

Una parte de un préstamo a largo plazo que vence en un mes también se clasifica como corriente por su vencimiento cercano.

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21 day ago
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Answer:

To begin with, we require a discount rate; in researching similar questions, I found that the discount rates ranged from 4% to 8%, so I opted for 6%.

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The present value of future net income = $50,000,000 / 0.06 = $833,333,333, but this figure must be discounted as the terminal value relates to the end of the current year, not now: $833,333,333 / 1.06 = $786,163,552

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Answer:

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