Rodriguez and Ying start a partnership on July​ 1, 2019. Rodriguez contributes​ $4,100 cash, furniture with a current market val

Answer:

Coca Cola's dominant strategy is strategy 1.

Explanation:

A dominant strategy refers to the choice a company makes that yields the maximum benefit compared to other available options. In this scenario, Coca Cola's optimal move is to choose strategy 1, as it results in the highest possible profit for the company.

Answer:

The query lacks completeness:

The production line yields 100,000 chips annually.

All chips are sold.

The production cost for each chip is roughly $9.00.

Testing each chip incurs about $4.00.

Repairing a chip, including labor and materials, is around $2.00.

This repair expense covers the re-testing.

Post-testing profit for each chip is $0.25.

Shane manages a team of fifteen full-time employees.

Under Shane's oversight, there are also two part-time workers.

The manager overseeing Shane has been with the organization for nearly 7 years.

Shane has maintained a good rapport with Rob, his manager, for several years.

The inquiries are as follows:

1. What percentage of the chips might be defective if Xanthum, Inc. orders 15,000 chips from Shane's line?

• There is one defect in every 150 chips, so the percentage of defective chips = (1 / 150) x 100 = 0.667%.
• Thus, for an order of 15,000 chips from Xanthum, approximately 100 will likely be flawed.

2. Is this failure rate acceptable? Considering it from Xanthum’s point of view? And from the manufacturer’s perspective? Why or why not?

• From Xanthum's viewpoint, no level of defects is acceptable. I would return the defective chips and most likely cease future purchases. If the chips are used in further manufacturing, any defective ones could harm the product's reputation and lead to financial losses.
• From the manufacturer's angle, this rate is tolerable since 99.333% of the chips are fine. The real issue isn't the minuscule failure rate, but rather the lack of action taken regarding it.

3. Considering Shane's line produces 100,000 chips each year, what are the costs for:

a) Testing and repairing each chip?

• Testing all chips will cost 100,000 x $4 = $400,000.
• Repair expenses = (100,000 x 0.667%) x $2 = $1,333.33.

b) Testing all chips and discarding the defective ones?

• Testing all chips will cost 100,000 x $4 = $400,000.
• Costs due to discarded chips = 667 chips x ($9 + $4) = $8,671.

c) Testing no chips and replacing customers’ chips as required?

• If no chips are tested, the testing expense is $0.
• The number of defective chips returned could be from 0 to 667. If 0 are returned, the replacement cost is $0. When 667 chips are returned, the replacement costs come to (667 x $9) + lost profit from the replaced chips = $6,003 + [667 x ($4 + $2 + $0.25)] = $6,003 + $4,168.75 = $10,171.75 plus any additional costs for replacements.

4. Is Rob’s assessment reasonable? What about his claim that it saves money to not discard defective chips?

• Since the expense of replacing flawed chips is significantly less than repairing and testing them, Rob is justified in saying that not repairing leads to greater profits. However, he fails to account for how selling faulty chips impacts the company’s sales. As mentioned in question 2, if I were a client, I would no longer buy chips from Rob’s company due to their defects. The costs associated with defective products can lead to lawsuits and damage the brand’s reputation. Rob is focusing on production costs without considering other potential repercussions. For instance, if Xanthum produces medical equipment using faulty chips that result in failures, they could be sued by clients, and Rob’s company would face similar legal challenges.

Question not complete

Direct Labour Cost is missing

Direct Labor Cost ----- $50,000.00 $270,000.00

Answer:

a.

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $5.5 per machine hour = $5.5 per machine hour

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = $12.2 per labour hour

b. Total Manufacturing Cost = $644

c. Yes

Explanation:

a. To determine the predetermined overhead rate appropriate for each department.

Given

Cutting Department

The Cutting Department calculates its rate based on machine-hours

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $264,000

Machine Hours = 48,000

Finishing Department

For the Finishing Department, the rate is calculated based on direct labor-hours.

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $366,000

Direct Labour Cost = $270,000

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = Manufacturing Overhead Cost/Machine Hours

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $264,000/48,000

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $5.5 per machine hour

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = Manufacturing Overhead Cost/Machine Hours

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = $366,000/$270,000

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = 1.36

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = 136% direct labour cost

b.

The Cutting Department's rate is based on machine-hours

Given

Machine hours = 80 machine hours

Overhead Rate = $5.5 per machine hours ------ This was calculated

The Finishing Department's calculations rely on direct labor-hours.

Given

Direct Labour Cost = 150

Overhead Rate = 136% of labor cost ------ This was deduced

Overhead Applied (Cutting Department) = 80 * 5.5

Overhead Applied = 440

Overhead Applied (Finishing Department) = 136% * 150

Overhead Applied = $204

Total Overhead Applied = $440 + $204

Total = $644

c. Yes

If the business utilizes a company-wide overhead rate linked to direct labor cost and if jobs have increased machine hours paired with lower labor costs, they would incur less overhead expenses.

23% decline.

This can be calculated by dividing 1,650,000 by 2,150,000, resulting in 0.7674. By multiplying this figure by 100, we arrive at 76.74%.

Yet, this represents the proportion that 1,650,000 constitutes of 2,150,000. Hence, we need to subtract this number from 100, yielding 23.26, or rounded to 23%.

Answer:

IRR = 14.96%

The project should be rejected, because the calculated internal rate of return falls short of the required return (14.96% < 16%).

Explanation:

The internal rate of return (IRR) is an essential calculation in capital budgeting for assessing potential investment profitability. The IRR rule guides whether to pursue a project or investment, stipulating that if the IRR exceeds the minimum required return, the project should be accepted. Conversely, if it’s lower than the cost of capital or the requisite return, the project should be turned down.

The formula used is as follows:

$0 = (initial investment x -1) + CF1 / (1 + IRR) ^ 1 + CF2 / (1 + IRR) ^ 2 +... + CFX / (1 + IRR) ^ X

Initial Investment = Total initial investment costs year x-1

CFx = Cash Flow during period X

IRR = Internal rate of return

Due to the nature of the IRR formula, it cannot be computed analytically; it must be derived through trial and error or via specialized software for IRR calculation.

In this instance:

IRR = -27200 + 11200 / (1 + IRR) ^ 1 + 14200 / (1 + IRR) ^ 2 + 10200 / (1 + IRR) ^ 3

IRR = 14.96%

The company should not proceed with the investment, as the calculated IRR is less than what is required (14.96% < 16%).