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Soloha48
3 months ago
12

Organizers of an Internet training session will charge participants $150 to attend. It costs $3000 to reserve the room, hire the

instructor, bring in the equipment, and advertise. Assume it costs $25 per student for the organizers to provide the course materials. How many students would have to attend for the company to break even? Breakeven [a]
Business
1 answer:
stepan [3.5K]3 months ago
5 0

Answer:

A total of 24 students is required to reach breakeven.

Explanation:

Breakeven occurs when total sales equal total expenses.

Thus,

Sales = Px * Q

Where Px represents the cost of the training session

Q denotes the number of students attending

Sales = 150Q

Cost = fixed cost + variable cost

Cost = 3000 + 25Q

Breakeven calculation

150Q = 3000 + 25Q

150Q - 25Q = 3000

125Q = 3000

Q = 3000 / 125

Q = 24

Thus, breakeven is achieved with 24 students.

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It is April 19, 2012 and you suddenly remember that your credit card bill is due the next day. You have the money in your checki
Nady [3600]

Answer: One potential action is to contact the credit card company to inquire if the payment can be made over the phone.

Explanation:

Other alternatives for settling a credit card bill without mailing include online payments. You'll need to create an online account, which typically requires your account number and some identification details. After registering, you can select the pay now feature to use your debit card or an online checking option for payment. It will process swiftly, though it may take a day to reflect in your account.

Most credit card companies offer an automated service allowing customers to make payments during the call. You'll require your card number, social security number, and debit card details for this transaction. While these payments are commonly free, it may vary based on the specific credit card provider.

8 0
2 months ago
Seaside Developments Inc. has $200,000 of no par value 4% cumulative preferred shares, and 12,000 shares of no par value common
harina [3808]

Response: a. $18,000

Clarification:

Cumulative Preferred Shares are types of shares whereby the company consistently pays Preferred dividends and if it cannot do so in any given year, the unpaid amount accumulates until they can pay it later.

In the question posed, the dividends owed to Preferred Shares are calculated as follows:

= 4% * 200,000

= $8,000

In the first year, $8,000 was allocated for dividends.

= 8,000 - 8,000

= 0

This implies that there are no preferred dividends owed from Year 1.

In Year 2, $18,000 was declared for dividends,

= 18,000 - 8,000

= $8,000

This indicates that in Year 2, the company managed to fulfill its Preferred dividends and still had funds available to distribute to Common Shareholders.

In Year 3, $24,000 was dedicated to dividends.

= 24,000 - 8,000

= $16,000

Therefore, in year 3, the company had enough funds to cover its Preferred Dividend commitments, meaning it paid out all of the $8,000 due to the Preferred Shareholders.

6 0
1 month ago
Metro Company trades its used machine for a new model at Denver Solutions Inc.
Free_Kalibri [3773]

Answer:

Cost of the new machine:

= Price of new machine - Trade allowance + Market value of old machine

= $16,000 - $9,000 + $6,000

= $13,000

Consequently, the journal entry would be recorded as follows:

New Machine Cost A/c                               Dr. $13,000

Accumulated Depreciation (Book Value) A/c Dr. $4,000

Loss from machine exchange A/c                    Dr. $2,000

         To Old Machine (Book Value)                    $12,000

         To Cash (16,000 - 9,000)                        $7,000

(To document the equipment exchange)

4 0
1 month ago
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