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strojnjashka
2 months ago
14

Deep Blue, a deep sea fishing company, bought a boat for $250,000. After 9 years, Deep Blue plans to sell it for a scrap value o

f $95,000. Assume linear depreciation.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Leona [12.6K]2 months ago
8 0

Answer:

Hence, utilizing linear depreciation gives us 17222.22.

Step-by-step explanation:

The boat's initial value is noted to be $250,000.

The straight-line depreciation method for calculating a boat is as follows:

Cost of the boat is $250,000.

Deep Blue anticipates selling it for $95,000 after 9 years.

Employing the formula, we calculate:

(250000-95000)/9=155000/9=17222.22

Thus, the outcome using linear depreciation is 17222.22.

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Suppose that in a casino game the payout is a random variable X . If X is positive, you gain money, if negative, you lose.
AnnZ [12381]
The conditional probabilities for X equaling 1, 2, and 3 are 0.7333 (73.33%), 0.25 (25%), and 0.0167 (1.67%) respectively.
8 0
1 month ago
If mJI = (3x+2)°, mHLK = (15x-36)°, and m∠HML = (8x-1)°, find mHLK
lawyer [12517]

Response:

The measure of mHLK is "(204)°".

Step-by-step breakdown:

Given values include:

mJI = (3x+2)°

mHLK = (15x-36)°

and,

m∠HML = (8x-1)°

then,

What is mHLK?

Now,

Utilizing the chord-chord angle formula, we find

mHMK=\frac{1}{2}(mJL+mHLK)

Inserting the known values into the equation gives us

⇒  (8x-1)=\frac{1}{2}(15x-36+3x+2)

By carrying out cross-multiplication, we arrive at

⇒  2(8x-1)=18x-34

⇒  16x-2=18x-34

By subtracting "18x" from both sides, we obtain

⇒  16x-2-18x=18x-34-18x

⇒  -2x-2=-34

Upon adding "2" to both sides, we end up with

⇒  -2x=-34+2

⇒  -2x=-32

⇒  x=\frac{32}{2}

⇒  x=16

By substituting the value of "x" into mHLK = (15x-36)°, we calculate

⇒ (15x-36)° = (15×16-36)°

⇒                = (240-36)°

⇒                = (204)°

Thus, mHLK = (204)°

4 0
2 months ago
a resorvoir can be filled by an inlet pipe in 24 hours and emptied by an outlet pipe 28 hours. the foreman starts to fill the re
zzz [12365]
To determine the rates at which the inlet and outlet pipes fill and empty the reservoir, we remember that work done equals rate multiplied by time. Let’s denote the inlet rate as i and for the outlet pipe as 0. Therefore,
i(24) = 1
o(28) = 1
In this context, the '1' represents the total number of reservoirs, since the problem states the time needed for each pipe to either fill or empty a singular reservoir. Solving for rates yields:
i = 1/24 reservoirs/hour
o = 1/28 reservoirs/hour

Over the first six hours, the inlet pipe fills (1/24)(6) = 1/4 reservoirs and during the same period, the outlet pipe empties (1/28)(6) = 3/14 reservoirs. To calculate the net volume of the reservoir filled, we subtract the emptying total from the filling total:
1/4 - 3/14 = 1/28 reservoirs (note that if emptying exceeds filling, a negative value results. In such cases, treat that negative value as zero, indicating that the outlet rate surpasses the inlet rate, leading to an empty reservoir).
Now we need to find out how long it will take to fill up one reservoir since we’ve already partially filled 1/28 of it, after closing the outlet pipe. In simpler terms, we need to determine the time required for the inlet pipe to finish filling the remaining 27/28 of the reservoir. Fortunately, we have already established the filling rate for the inlet pipe, leading to the equation:
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Please ask me any questions you may have!
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We start with the following information:

p = probability = 0.12<span>
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x = number of left-handers = 5<span>
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Finding the z score:

z = (x – u) / σ

<span> z = (5 – 4.68) / 2.03
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z = 0.1576 = 0.16

<span>

</span>Applying standard tables for z gives the p value as:

p value = 0.5636 = 56.36%

 

Consequently, there is a 56.36% probability.

 

8 0
1 month ago
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