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statuscvo
1 month ago
9

What is the main reason Dylan uses the word uses the word “lonesome” to describe Hattie Carroll’s death?

Mathematics
1 answer:
lawyer [12.5K]1 month ago
8 0

The correct answer is B. No one stood up for her

The song primarily addresses the racism prevalent in our nation. Dylan highlights that the murderer was not penalized initially; he was released on the night of the homicide due to his wealth, and during the trial, he received only a six-month term instead of a meaningful punishment. Hattie Carroll was largely overlooked in this scenario.

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ΔABC is an equilateral triangle. m∠A = (3x - 12)°. Solve for x.
zzz [12365]
In the case of an equilateral triangle ABC, each angle measures 60 degrees, as the total angle sum in any triangle is 180 degrees, and dividing that by 3 yields 60. Setting this equal to 3x-12, we have 60 = 3x - 12. After adding 12 to both sides, we get 72 = 3x, and dividing 72 by 3 gives us x = 24.66! I hope this clarifies things for you!
6 0
1 month ago
Read 2 more answers
10 times as many as blank hundreds or 60 hundreds is blank thousands
Svet_ta [12734]

The result of multiplying 10 by 6 hundreds equals 60 hundreds, which can also be expressed as 6 thousands.

Explanation

This can be simplified as follows:

  • 10 times a given quantity of _____ hundreds results in 60 hundreds
  • 60 hundreds convert to _____ thousands

We will divide this into two segments:

\boxed{ \ 10 \times (N \times 100) = 60 \times 100 \ }... Equation-1

\boxed{ \ 60 \times 100) = M \times 1,000 \ }... Equation-2

This straightforward multiplication relates to the place value system. We need to perform calculations to find the values of N and M.

Initially, let's focus on Equation-1.

We will move the variable M to one side of the equation in order to isolate it and solve for its value.

\boxed{ \ 10 \times (N \times 100) = 60 \times 100 \ }

\boxed{ \ 1,000 \times N = 6,000 \ }

Both parts will be divided by 1,000, essentially being multiplied by \frac{1}{1,000}.

\boxed{ \ \frac{1}{1,000} \times 1,000 \times N = \frac{1}{1,000} \times 6,000 \ }

Thus, we conclude with \boxed{\boxed{ \ N = 6 \ }}

Next, we process Equation-2 to derive M's value.

\boxed{ \ 60 \times 100) = M \times 1,000 \ }

\boxed{ \ 6,000 = M \times 1,000 \ }

Rearranging this equation to place M on the left side appears as follows:

\boxed{ \ M \times 1,000 = 6,000 \ }

Again, both sides undergo division by 1,000, which translates to multiplication by \frac{1}{1,000}..

\boxed{ \ \frac{1}{1,000} \times M \times 1,000 = \frac{1}{1,000} \times 6,000 \ }

This results in \boxed{\boxed{ \ M = 6 \ }}

- - - - - - -

Alternative approach for the second step:

60 hundreds equals to __ thousands

\boxed{ \ 6 \times 10 \ hundreds = \ M \ thousands} \ }

\boxed{ \ 6 \times thousands = \ M \ thousands} \ }

\boxed{\boxed{ \ M = 6 \ }}

Additional resources

  1. A more detailed version of this topic
  2. 2 thousands 7 tens divided by 10 equals what?
  3. 100 is equivalent to 1/10 of which number?

Keywords: 10 times as many as, blank, hundreds, 60 hundreds, or, thousands, isolate, operations, multiply, divide, fraction, both sides, equal, the opposite, both sides are multiplied by, divided by, rearrange

4 0
1 month ago
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Imagine that after washing 5 distinct pairs of socks, you discover that two socks are missing! of course, you would like to have
Zina [12379]
Part A:

Considering the best possible outcome

The ideal case occurs if the two missing socks are from the same pair.
Consequently, there are 4 complete pairs remaining.

To choose 2 from the total of 10 socks (5 pairs), the number of combinations is given by 10C2 = 45.

Choosing 2 that are from the same pair means selecting one from 5 pairs, so the count is 5C1 = 5.

Thus, the probability for this best case is 5 / 45 = 1 / 9.

Part B:

Considering the worst-case outcome

This scenario occurs when the two missing socks are from different pairs.
As a result, we have 3 complete pairs left.

The total ways to select 2 socks from 10, again, is 10C2 = 45.

To select 2 that do not belong to the same pair, we calculate as follows: 10C2 - 5C1 = 45 - 5 = 40.

Therefore, the probability for the worst-case scenario is 40 / 45 = 8 / 9.
5 0
1 month ago
It takes 45 minutes to drive to the nearest bowling alley taking city streets going
tester [12383]
21 minutes. Step-by-step explanation: Considering the following: Using CITY STREET: The duration to drive to the nearest bowling alley is 45 minutes, which is 0.75 hours. The travel speed is 30 miles per hour. Switching to FREEWAY: the travel speed here is 65 miles per hour. Assuming both routes cover the same distance, the time required on the FREEWAY will be as follows: The distance calculated using the city route results in 30 mph = distance / 0.75 hour, giving a distance of 22.5 miles. As the distance remains consistent: Time taken on the FREEWAY = distance / speed, which results in 22.5 / 65 = 0.3461538 hours. Converting to minutes = 0.3461538 × 60, which rounds to approximately 21 minutes.
7 0
1 month ago
A small plane flies 760,320 yards in 2 hours. Use the formula d = rt, where d represents distance, r represents rate, and t repr
tester [12383]

Answer:

Refer to the explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We start with a small aircraft that flies 760,320 yards within a duration of 2 hours.

A)

The formula for distance is:

d=rt

To isolate the rate r, we divide both sides by time:

r=\frac{d}{t}

B)

To calculate the rate in yards per hour, divide the total yards by the hours taken. Therefore:

r=\frac{\text{760320 yards}}{\text{2 hours}}

Perform division:

r=\text{380160 yd/hr}

Thus, the aircraft speeds at 380,160 yards every hour.

C)

There are 1,760 yards in a mile.

To compute the speed in miles per hour, we apply dimensional analysis.

We recognize the rate is 380,160 yards per hour:

r=\frac{\text{380160 yards}}{\text{1 hour}}

To cancel "yards" from the numerator, we multiply by 1 mi/1,760 yards. Therefore:

r=\frac{\text{380160 yards}}{\text{1 hour}}\cdot \frac{\text{1 mi}}{\text{1760 yards}}

This eliminates yards:

r=\frac{\text{380160}}{\text{1 hour}}\cdot \frac{\text{1 mi}}{\text{1760}}

Now, multiply the values across:

r=\frac{\text{380160 mi}}{\text{1760 hour}}

Then divide:

r=\frac{\text{216 miles}}{\text{ hour}}

The final rate for the plane is 216 miles per hour.

D)

Miles are a more appropriate measurement in this context because the distance is substantial, making it impractical to express using yards. A rate of 380,160 yards per hour is excessive, whereas 216 miles per hour provides a clearer understanding.

7 0
1 month ago
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