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Ganezh
8 days ago
8

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1-1/2 parts rice. If 1-1/2 parts of beans are used how much rice should be used

Mathematics
2 answers:
Leona [4.1K]8 days ago
8 0

Answer:

2\frac{1}{4}  parts of rice should be utilized.

Step-by-step explanation:

The recipe specifies 1 part beans to 1\frac{1}{2} part rice.

In the event that 1\frac{1}{2} parts of beans are applied,

the calculation for rice should be = 1\frac{1}{2} × 1\frac{1}{2}

                         = \frac{3}{2} × \frac{3}{2}  

                         = \frac{9}{4}                              

                         = 2\frac{1}{4} parts or 2.25 parts of rice.

2\frac{1}{4}  parts of rice should be utilized.

Leona [4.1K]8 days ago
5 0
I believe the answer is 2 parts of rice. If you incorporate half into the beans, do the same for the rice.
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