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Ganezh
1 month ago
8

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1-1/2 parts rice. If 1-1/2 parts of beans are used how much rice should be used

Mathematics
2 answers:
Leona [12.6K]1 month ago
8 0

Answer:

2\frac{1}{4}  parts of rice should be utilized.

Step-by-step explanation:

The recipe specifies 1 part beans to 1\frac{1}{2} part rice.

In the event that 1\frac{1}{2} parts of beans are applied,

the calculation for rice should be = 1\frac{1}{2} × 1\frac{1}{2}

                         = \frac{3}{2} × \frac{3}{2}  

                         = \frac{9}{4}                              

                         = 2\frac{1}{4} parts or 2.25 parts of rice.

2\frac{1}{4}  parts of rice should be utilized.

Leona [12.6K]1 month ago
5 0
I believe the answer is 2 parts of rice. If you incorporate half into the beans, do the same for the rice.
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Gabi wants to drive to and from the airport. She finds two companies near her that offer short-term car rental service at differ
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Answer:

The cost difference per mile between the two companies is $0.12.

Step-by-step explanation:

Gabi formulates the equation 0.22m+7.20=0.1m+8.40 to determine after how many miles, denoted as m, the charges of both companies will be equal.

The first company levies c_1=0.22m+7.20 for m miles traveled.

The second company's charge for the same m miles is c_2=0.1m+8.40.

In these equations, the figures 7.20 and 8.40 signify the initial fees the companies impose.

The values 0.22 and 0.1 represent the respective costs per mile.

As such, the disparity in per-mile charges amounts to 0.22-0.1=0.12.

An alternative method to tackle this problem is by calculating the per-mile rate for each company:

1. Cost per mile for the first company

c_1(0)=0.22\cdot 0+7.20=7.20\\ \\c_1(1)=0.22\cdot 1+7.20=7.42\\ \\c_1(1)-c_1(0)-7.42-7.20=0.22

2. Cost per mile for the second company

c_2(0)=0.1\cdot 0+8.40=8.40\\ \\c_2(1)=0.1\cdot 1+8.40=8.50\\ \\c_2(1)-c_2(0)=8.50-8.40=0.1

3. The difference:

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1 month ago
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There are 0.015 kilograms in 15 grams. Since each can weighs 0.015 kg and the payment rate is 50p per kilogram, 0.015 multiplied by 66 amounts to 1 kilogram! Therefore, 66 cans are needed to generate one kilogram. As a result, earning £15 would mean that with 2 kg equating to one dollar, then 15 multiplied by 2 equals 30. Consequently, 66 times 30 gives 1980!

66 relates to each kilogram, and 30 indicates how many 50p are required for one dollar!

Thus, to obtain £15, Adam has to recycle a total of 1980 cans!


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Answer:

Here’s the answer below.

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3 0
1 month ago
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Answer: 12 days

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