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Gekata
15 days ago
13

A group of physics students hypothesize that for an experiment they are performing, the speed of an object sliding down an incli

ned plane will be given by the expression v=2gd(sin(θ)−μkcos(θ))−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√. For their experiment, d=0.725meter, θ=45.0∘, μk=0.120, and g=9.80meter/second2. Use your calculator to obtain the value that their hypothesis predicts for v.
Physics
2 answers:
serg [1.1K]15 days ago
6 0

Answer:

v = 2.974

Explanation:

Consider rewriting the formula as follows:

v = √(2 * g * d * (sin(θ) - μk * cos(θ))) — this version is clearer.

Substituting values, we get: v = √(2 * 9.80 * 0.725 (0.707 - 0.12 * 0.707)). Calculate 2 * g * d first.

v = √(14.21 * (0.707 - 0.0849)) — compute sin(θ) minus μk times cos(θ).

v = √(14.21 * 0.6222)

v = √8.8422 — find the square root of the result.

v = 2.974

kicyunya [1K]15 days ago
6 0

Answer:

v = 2.97 m/s

Explanation:

The velocity equation for the experiment is given as:

v = \sqrt{2gd(sin\theta - \mu_kcos\theta)}

Given the values:

d = 0.725 m

\theta = 45 ^o

\mu_k = 0.120

g = 9.80

This leads to:

v = \sqrt{2(9.80)(0.725)(sin45 - 0.120cos45)}

v = 2.97 m/s

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An axle passes through a pulley. Each end of the axle has a string that is tied to a support. A third string is looped many time
Keith_Richards [1034]

Answer:

ΔL = MmRgt / (2m + M)

Explanation:

The system starts from rest, so the change in angular momentum correlates directly to its final angular momentum.

ΔL = L − L₀

ΔL = Iω − 0

ΔL = ½ MR²ω

To determine the angular velocity ω, begin by drawing a free body diagram for both the pulley and the block.

For the block, two forces act: the weight force mg downward and tension force T upward.

For the pulley, three forces are present: weight force Mg down, a reaction force up, and tension force T downward.

For the sum of forces in the -y direction on the block:

∑F = ma

mg − T = ma

T = mg − ma

For the sum of torques on the pulley:

∑τ = Iα

TR = (½ MR²) (a/R)

T = ½ Ma

Substituting gives:

mg − ma = ½ Ma

2mg − 2ma = Ma

2mg = (2m + M) a

a = 2mg / (2m + M)

The angular acceleration of the pulley is:

αR = 2mg / (2m + M)

α = 2mg / (R (2m + M))

Finally, the angular velocity after time t is:

ω = αt + ω₀

ω = 2mg / (R (2m + M)) t + 0

ω = 2mgt / (R (2m + M))

Substituting into the previous equations gives:

ΔL = ½ MR² × 2mgt / (R (2m + M))

ΔL = MmRgt / (2m + M)

3 0
17 days ago
A closed system of mass 10 kg undergoes a process during which there is energy transfer by work from the system of 0.147 kJ per
Softa [913]

Result: -50.005 kJ

Details:

Provided Data

mass of the system = 10 kg

work done = 0.147 kJ/kg

Elevation change (\Delta h)=-50 m

initial speed (v_1)=15 m/s

Final Speed (v_2)=30 m/s

Specific internal Energy (\Delta U)=-5 kJ/kg

according to the first Law of thermodynamics

Q-W=\Delta H

\Delta H=\Delta KE+ \Delta PE +\Delta U

where KE represents kinetic energy

PE indicates potential energy

U denotes internal Energy

\Delta H=\frac{m(v_2^2-v_1^2)}{2}+mg(\Delta h)+\Delta U

Q=W+\Delta KE+ \Delta PE +\Delta U

Q=0.147\times 10+\frac{10\cdot (30^2-15^2)}{2}+10\cdot 9.81\cdot (-5)-5\times 10

Q = 1.47 + 3.375 - 4.850 - 50

Q = -50.005 kJ

5 0
13 days ago
a fixed mass of a n ideal gas is heated from 50 to 80C at a constant pressure at 1 atm and again at a constant pressure of 3 atm
inna [987]

Answer:

The required energy remains identical in both scenarios since the specific heat capacity (Cp) does not change with varying pressure.

Explanation:

Given;

initial temperature, t₁ = 50 °C

final temperature, t₂ = 80 °C

Temperature change, ΔT = 80 °C - 50 °C = 30 °C

Pressure for scenario one = 1 atm

Pressure for scenario two = 3 atm

The energy needed in both scenarios is expressed as;

Q = M*C_p*\delta T

Where;

Cp denotes specific heat capacity, which only varies with temperature and remains unaffected by pressure.

Hence, the energy required remains the same for both scenarios since specific heat capacity (Cp) is pressure-independent.

8 0
9 days ago
A solid conducting sphere carrying charge q has radius a. It is inside a concentric hollow conducting sphere with inner radius b
Softa [913]

Response:

Clarification:

Refer to the diagram indicating the charges on the specified sphere (see attachment).

The electric field at the stated positions is

E(r) = 0 for r≤a.  Equation 1

E(r) = kq/r² for a<r<b.   Equation 2

E(r) = 0 for b<r<c.      Equation 3

E(r) = kq/r² for r>c.    Equation 4.

We understand that electric potential correlates with the electric field through

V = Ed

A. To compute the potential at the outer surface of the hollow sphere (r=c), we determine that the electric field there is

E = kQ / r²

Then,

V = Ed,

At d = r = c

Thus,

Vc = (kQ / c²) × c

Vc = kQ / c

As a result, the total charge Q consists of +q, -q, and +q

Hence, Q = q - q + q = q

V = kq / c

B. To calculate the potential at the inner surface of the hollow sphere (r=b), we have

V = kQ/r

V = kQ / b,   noting that r = b

So, Q = q

V = kq / b

C. At r = a

Following from equation 1:

E(r) = 0 for r≤a.  Equation 1

The electric field at the surface of the solid sphere is 0, E = 0N/C

Thus,

V = Ed = 0 V

Consequently, the electric potential at the solid sphere's surface is 0.

D. At r = 0

The electric potential can be determined by

V = kq / r

As r approaches 0,

V = kq / 0

V approaches infinity.

8 0
10 days ago
Several charges in the neighborhood of point P produce an electric potential of 6.0 kV (relative to zero at infinity) and an ele
ValentinkaMS [1149]

Answer:

0.018 J

Explanation:

The work required to bring the charge from infinity to the point P is equal to the change in its electric potential energy. This can be expressed as

W = q \Delta V

where

q=3.0 \mu C = 3.0 \cdot 10^{-6} C represents the charge's magnitude

and \Delta V = 6.0 kV = 6000 V signifies the potential difference between point P and infinity.

After substituting into the formula, we arrive at

W=(3.0\cdot 10^{-6}C)(6000 V)=0.018 J

4 0
7 days ago
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