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kumpel
13 days ago
6

A composite wall consists of 20 mm thick steel plate backed by insulation brick (k = 0.39 W/mK) of 50 cm thickness and overlaid

by mineral wool of 20 cm thickness (k = 0.05 W/mK) and 70 cm layer of brick of (k = 0.39 W/mK). The inside is exposed to convection at 650°C with h = 65 W/ m2K. The outside is exposed to air at 35°C with a convection coefficient of 15 W/m2K. Determine the heat loss per unit area, interface temperatures and temperature gradients in each materials.

Engineering
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All MOS devices are subject to damage from:________
Viktor [391]

Answer:

d. all of these

Explanation:

Electrostatic discharge typically generates a high voltage in a localized area, leading to increased current and heat. It can create craters in an MOS device, damage bond wires, or result in other forms of impairment. Essentially, MOS devices are vulnerable to harm from "all of these."

6 0
2 months ago
A test machine that kicks soccer balls has a 5-lb simulated foot attached to the end of a 6-ft long pendulum arm of negligible m
choli [298]

Answer:

a) v₂ = 26.6 ft/s

b) v₂ = 31.9 ft/s

Explanation:

a) Applying the principle of energy conservation for the soccer arm from the point of impact to its lowest point:

mgh=\frac{1}{2} mv^{2} \\v=\sqrt{2gh} =\sqrt{2*32.2*6} =19.66ft/s

The ball's velocity in the tangential direction is given by:

v₂*sinθ = v₁*sin30

With the values:

if v₁ = 0

θ = 0º

The restitution coefficient is:

e=\frac{v_{2}*cosO-v_{2}cos30 }{v*cos30-(-v_{1}*cos30 )} \\0.8=\frac{v_{2}cos0-v_{2}*cos30 }{19.66*cos30-(0*cos30)} \\v_{2} =\frac{v_{2}-13.6 }{cos30}

where O=θ

The aggregate momentum equation is:

mv-mv_{1} =mv_{2} +mv_{2} cos(O+30)\\, where O = θ

mv-mv_{1} =m(\frac{v_{2}-13.6 }{cos30} )+mv_{2} cos(O+30)

When we incorporate gravitational acceleration:

mgv-mgv_{1} =mg(\frac{v_{2}-13.6 }{cos30} )+mgv_{2} cos(O+30)\\5*19.66-1*0=5*(\frac{v_{2}-13.6 }{cos30} )+1*v_{2} cos(O+30)

Isolating v₂ results in:

v₂ = 26.6 ft/s

b) To find the ball's velocity, we utilize:

v₂ * sinθ = v₁ * sin30

if v₁ = 10 ft/s

then v₂ * sinθ = 10 * sin30

thus sinθ = 5/v₂

The restitution coefficient remains:

e=\frac{v_{2}*cosO-v_{2}cos30 }{v*cos30-(-v_{2}*cos30) } \\0.8=\frac{v_{2}cosO-v_{2}cos30 }{19.66*cos30-(-10*cos30)} \\v_{2} =\frac{v_{2}cos30-20.55}{cos30}

where O = θ

mgv-mgv_{1} =mgv_{2} +mgv_{2} cos(O+30)\\5*19.66-1*0=5v_{2} +v_{2} cos(O+30)\\98.3=5v_{2}+v_{2} cosOcos30-v_{2} sinOsin30

Solving for v₂ yields:

v₂ = 31.9 ft/s

6 0
2 months ago
The 10-kg block slides down 2 m on the rough surface with kinetic friction coefficient μk = 0.2. What is the work done by the fr
iogann1982 [368]

Answer:

153.2 J

Explanation:

Let’s first identify our known variables:

mass (m) of the block = 10 kg

distance slid down (i.e., displacement) = 2 m

coefficient of kinetic friction (μk) = 0.2

In the following diagram, if we analyze the force component directed along the displacement, we find

F_x= Fcos 40°

F_x= 100 (cos 40°)

F_x= 76.60 N

The work done by the frictional force is then calculated as:

W = F_x × displacement

W = 76.60 × 2

W = 153.2 J

Therefore, the work done by the frictional force equals 153.2 J

7 0
2 months ago
The water level in a large tank is maintained at height H above the surrounding level terrain. A rounded nozzle placed in the si
pantera1 [306]

Answer:

Explanation: Kindly refer to the attached files for a detailed solution process.

Take note that the diagram file is the first one and is positioned accordingly.

8 0
1 month ago
A bar of 75 mm diameter is reduced to 73mm by a cutting tool while cutting orthogonally. If the mean length of the cut chip is 7
mote1985 [299]

Answer:

r=0.31

Ф=18.03°

Explanation:

Provided:

Original diameter of bar = 75 mm

Diameter post-cutting = 73 mm

Average diameter of the bar d= (75+73)/2=74 mm

Average length of uncut chip = πd

Average length of uncut chip = π x 74 =232.45 mm

Thus, cutting ratio r

Cutting\ ratio=\dfrac{Mean\ length\ of cut\ chip}{Mean\ length\ of uncut\ chip}

r=\dfrac{73.5}{232.45}   r=0.31

Therefore, the cutting ratio equals 0.31.

Now, the shearing angle is given as

tan\phi =\dfrac{rcos\alpha }{1-rsin\alpha }

Next by substituting the values

tan\phi =\dfrac{rcos\alpha }{1-rsin\alpha }

tan\phi =\dfrac{0.31cos15 }{1-0.31sin15 }\

Ф=18.03°

Concluding, the shearing angle is 18.03°.

4 0
3 months ago
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