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Mademuasel
2 months ago
10

Taylor places a nail on a bar magnet. The nail sticks to the magnet when lifted up off the table. She touches a paperclip to the

nail and it sticks to the nail. Explain what happened to the magnetic domains of the nail before and after touching it to the bar magnet.
Physics
2 answers:
inna [3.1K]2 months ago
8 0

Initially, the magnetic domains within the nail are oriented in various directions, leading to an overall lack of magnetism. When the nail comes into contact with the bar magnet, these domains begin aligning in the same direction as the magnet's field. After this interaction, the nail itself becomes magnetized, which is evident when a paperclip is subsequently attracted to it and adheres to its surface.

ValentinkaMS [3.4K]2 months ago
5 0
Initially, the magnetic domains within the nail were oriented in various directions before coming into contact with the bar magnet. Upon Taylor touching the nail to the bar magnet, the magnetic fields of those domains became aligned, thus transforming the nail into a temporary magnet.
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An archer fires an arrow, which produces a muffled "thwok" as it hits a target. If the archer hears the "thwok" exactly 1 s afte
Ostrovityanka [3204]

Answer:

35.79 meters

Explanation:

We have an archer, and there is a target. Denote the distance between them as d.

The bowman releases the arrow, which travels the distance d at a velocity of 40 m/s until it hits the target. We establish the equation as:

v_{arrow} * t_{arrow} = d\\ \\40 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} = d

Right after this, the arrow produces a muffled noise, traveling the same distance d at a speed of 340 m/s in time t_{sound}. Thus, we can derive:

v_{sound} * t_{sound} = d\\ \\340 \frac{m}{s} * t_{sound} = d.

Consequently, the sound reaches the archer, precisely 1 second post-firing the bow, resulting in:

t_{arrow} + t _{sound} = 1 s.

Using this relationship in the distance formula for sound allows us to write:

340 \frac{m}{s} * t_{sound} = d \\ \\ 340 \frac{m}{s} * (1 s- t_{arrow}) = d.

Substituting the value of d from the first equation yields:

40 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} = d \\ 40 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} = 340 \frac{m}{s} * (1 s- t_{arrow}).

Now, after some calculations, we can proceed further:

40 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} = 340 \frac{m}{s} * 1 s - 340 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} \\ \\ 40 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} + 340 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} = 340 m \\ \\ 380 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} = 340 m \\ \\ t_{arrow} = \frac{340 m}{380 \frac{m}{s}} \\ \\ t_{arrow} = 0.8947 s.

Finally, the value is inserted into the initial equation:

40 \frac{m}{s} * t_{arrow} = d

40 \frac{m}{s} * 340/380 s = 35,79 s = d

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Respuesta:

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