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Ulleksa
13 days ago
11

Pilobolus is a genus of fungi commonly found on dung and known for launching its spores a large distance for a sporangiophore on

ly 1 cm tall. To achieve this, Pilobolus accelerates its spores (m = 10−8 kg) to 7.0 m/s in 2.0 μs. For calculations, use g = 10 m/s2.
How much work is done by the Pilobolus head when it ejects the spore?

If the spores are shot out horizontally at the maximum speed, how far away from the fungi do they land? Neglect air resistance.

A. 5.0 m
B. 1.0 m
C. 10.0 m
D. 0 m
Physics
1 answer:
Softa [904]13 days ago
3 0

1) The work performed on the spores is 2.45\cdot 10^{-7}J

2) The spores land 0.32 m away

Explanation:

1)

According to the work-energy principle, the work done on the spores equals their change in kinetic energy:

W=K_f - K_i = \frac{1}{2}mv^2-\frac{1}{2}mu^2

where

W is work done

m represents the spore's mass

v is the final velocity

u is the initial velocity

Given:

spore mass = m=10^{-8} kg

initial velocity u = 0 (starting from rest)

final velocity v = 7.0 m/s

Calculating the work:

W=\frac{1}{2}(10^{-8})(7.0)^2-0=2.45\cdot 10^{-7}J

2)

The spores follow projectile motion, moving along a parabolic trajectory made of two motions:

- Constant speed horizontally

- Vertically accelerated due to gravity

Considering vertical motion first, using kinematics:

s=ut+\frac{1}{2}at^2

where

s = 0.01 m (shooting height)

u = 0 (no initial vertical velocity, horizontal ejection)

t = time of flight

g = acceleration due to gravity a=g=10 m/s^2

Solving for t:

t=\sqrt{\frac{2s}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(0.01)}{10}}=0.045 s

Now for horizontal displacement, when velocity is constant:

d=v_x t

where

horizontal velocity = v_x = 7.0 m/s

time t = 0.045 s

Calculating distance d:

d=(7.0)(0.045)=0.32 m

Thus, the spores land 0.32 meters away.

Learn more about work:

brainly.com/question/6763771

brainly.com/question/6443626

Learn more about projectile motion:

brainly.com/question/8751410

#LearnwithBrainly

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If a radio wave has a period of 1 μs what is the wave's period in seconds
Softa [904]

Answer:

10^{-6} s


The period of a wave is the duration it takes to complete one full oscillation, such as from one peak to the next trough.

Since the period is expressed in microseconds, it needs to be converted into seconds.

The conversion is:

1\mu s=10^{-6} s


Accordingly, the wave's period in seconds is 10^{-6} s
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7 0
15 days ago
How many electrons does it take to make 80 μc (microcoulombs) of charge?
serg [1189]

The charge for a single electron is 1.602*10^ -19 C

80 µC can be expressed as 8*10^ - 5 C

This is basic arithmetic

Total Charge divided by the charge of one electron = Number of electrons

(8*10^ -5 C / 1.602*10^ -19 C) equals 4.99 * 10^14 electrons.

6 0
7 days ago
Calculate the change in the kinetic energy (KE) of the bottle when the mass is increased. Use the formula KE = mv2, where m is t
ValentinkaMS [1138]

Kinetic energy is represented as

KE = (0.5) m v²

In each scenario, v = the velocity of the bottle set at  4 m/s

with m = 0.125 kg

KE = (0.5) m v² =  (0.5) (0.125) (4)² = 1 J

for m = 0.250 kg

KE = (0.5) m v² =  (0.5) (0.250) (4)² = 2 J

if m = 0.375 kg

KE = (0.5) m v² =  (0.5) (0.375) (4)² = 3 J

when m = 0.500 kg

KE = (0.5) m v² =  (0.5) (0.500) (4)² = 4 J

6 0
3 days ago
Read 3 more answers
The magnitude of the Poynting vector of a planar electromagnetic wave has an average value of 0.939 W/m2. The wave is incident u
Yuliya22 [1153]

Answer:

The total energy can be expressed as T = 169.02 \ J

Explanation:

The problem states that

The Poynting vector, which measures energy flux, equals k = 0.939 \ W/m^2

The rectangle's length is represented by l = 1.5 \ m

The width of the rectangle is w = 2.0 \ m

The duration considered is t = 1 \ minute = 60 \ s

Mathematically, the overall electromagnetic energy incident on the area is given by

T = k * A * t

where A denotes the area of the rectangle, calculated as

A= l * w

By plugging in the respective values

A= 2 * 1.5

A= 3 \ m^2

Again substituting values

T = 0.939 * 3 * 60

T = 169.02 \ J

5 0
6 days ago
A uniform magnetic field makes an angle of 30o with the z axis. If the magnetic flux through a 1.0 m2 portion of the xy plane is
Yuliya22 [1153]

Response:

(b) 10 Wb

Clarification:

Given;

angle of the magnetic field, θ = 30°

initial area of the plane, A₁ = 1 m²

initial magnetic flux through the plane, Φ₁ = 5.0 Wb

The equation for magnetic flux is;

Φ = BACosθ

where;

B denotes the magnetic field strength

A represents the area of the plane

θ is the inclination angle

Φ₁ = BA₁Cosθ

5 = B(1 x cos30)

B = 5/(cos30)

B = 5.7735 T

Next, calculate the magnetic flux through a 2.0 m² section of the same plane:

Φ₂ = BA₂Cosθ

Φ₂ = 5.7735 x 2 x cos30

Φ₂ = 10 Wb

<pHence, the magnetic flux through a 2.0 m² area of the same plane is 10 Wb.

Option "b"

3 0
4 days ago
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